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QUESTION 721
What is one requirement to support the IGMP proxy feature?

A.    Devices on the unidirectional link must be in the same IP subnet.
B.    Devices connected to a unidirectional link must disable Internet access.
C.    IGMP snooping must be disabled.
D.    PIM-DM must be enabled on all unidirectional links.

Answer: A

QUESTION 722
Which routing protocol is incompatible with VRF-lite?

A.    IS-IS
B.    EIGRP
C.    BGP
D.    OSPF

Answer: A

QUESTION 723
Which two statements about GLBP are true? (Choose two)

A.    It allows members to elect up to gateways as the AVG.
B.    It uses Hello, Request, and Reply packet types.
C.    Each GLBP group supports up to 4 MAC addresses.
D.    It communicates to multicast address 224.0.0.18.
E.    It supports stateful switchover.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 724
Refer to the Exhibit. Which two statements about the given MPLS VPN ate true? (Choose two.)

 

A.    It includes four CE routers.
B.    Router A and router 1 must be BGP neighbors.
C.    It includes four P routers.
D.    It includes two CEs and two Pes.
E.    Only one connection is outside the ISP network.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 725
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given configuration?(Choose two)

 

A.    Source for the 224.1.1.1 multicast stream will register with 172.1.1.1.
B.    It configures 172.1.1.1 as a spare-mode rendezvous point.
C.    Multicast stream 224.1.1.1 will operate in spare mode.
D.    It configures 172.1.1.1 as the Bidir-PIM rendezvous point.
E.    Multicast stream 224.1.1.1 will operate in dense mode.
F.    Sources for the 239.1.1.1 multicast stream will register with 172.1.1.1.

Answer: DF

QUESTION 726
Refer to the Exhibit. Which two statements about the R1 configuration are true? (Choose two)

 

A.    Timestamp are disabled for log messages.
B.    The service timestamps log uptime command is configured.
C.    R1 is using the default format for log output.
D.    Sequence numbers and timestamps for log output
E.    The buffer is set to the default size of 4096 bytes.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 727
Which two statements about QoS classification and marking are true? (Choose two)

A.    After classification of a packet, the device can only transmit the packet as is, or discard it
B.    It can classify packets based on their source IP and MAC addresses only
C.    Through the use of traffic policing, CAR provides rate limiting capabilities
D.    CAR is capable of classifying and reclassifying packets as they are processed
E.    It can classify packets based on their source and destination IP and MAC addresses only
F.    CAR rate policies use CoS, IP precedence, and prefix lists to match traffic

Answer: BF

QUESTION 728
Which statement describes the operation of the Generalized TTL Security Mechanism (GTSM), used by routing protocols to prevent some types of attack?

A.    An MD5 hash of the received TTL, source IP, destination IP, protocol , and shared key must match
B.    The TTL in a received packet must be a low value (typically 1-2)
C.    The TTL in a received packet must be a high value (typically 254-255)
D.    Both end systems compute an MD5 hash based on the TTL and a shared secret. If the received and local value differ, the packet is dropped

Answer: C

QUESTION 729
What is the mechanism could be used to avoid the problem of TCP Starvation / UDP Dominance?

A.    Place UDP traffic in a dedicated traffic-class with the bandwidth keyword configured
B.    Use policy routing to send the UDP and TCP traffic over different paths
C.    Configure QoS to police UDP traffic to the desired volume
D.    WRED to balance TCP and UDP utilization

Answer: D

QUESTION 730
Refer to the exhibit. When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message.

 

Which action can you take to correct the problem?

A.    Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy
B.    Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually
C.    Configure the event action to run the applet
D.    Configure the event manager run command to register the event

Answer: C

QUESTION 731
Which three sets of fields that can be included in a NetFlow export template? (Choose three)

A.    IGP
B.    IPv4 main cache
C.    ODR
D.    BGP PIC
E.    PfR
F.    MPLS labels

Answer: BDF

QUESTION 732
Which technology uses MPLS to provide IPv6 connectivity to customers in the core network without the need for dual-stack?

A.    6to4
B.    NAT64
C.    NAT
D.    6PE

Answer: D

QUESTION 733
Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two)

A.    It is supported both for IPV4 and IPV6 multicast deployments
B.    It is encapsulated into UDP segments
C.    It is encapsulated into PIM packets
D.    It interconnects into PIM-SM domains
E.    MSDP peers are established using multiprotocol BGP
F.    MPLS is required to establish MSDP peering

Answer: DE

QUESTION 734
Which type of QoS is used on the CE device to rate-limit the aggregate traffic towards the WAN Ethernet circuit?

A.    CBWFQ
B.    WRED
C.    LLQ
D.    FIFO

Answer: C

QUESTION 735
Which two statements about enhanced object tracking are true?(Choose two)

A.    With HSRP, it can track only the line-protocol state.
B.    It can track over 200 objects at once.
C.    It supports stateful switchover with HSRP
D.    It supports stateful switchover with GLBP
E.    Tracking objects are identified with unique numbers

Answer: BE

QUESTION 736
On a network using DiffServ, which option refers to the actions that applied to a packet as it moves through the network?

A.    DSCP
B.    PHB
C.    Code-point
D.    IP-precedence

Answer: A

QUESTION 737
Which two statements about NetFlow version 9 are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It supports up to two exporters per cache
B.    It supports both encryption and authentication
C.    It supports up to six exporters per cache
D.    It supports export over TCP and UDP
E.    It supports export over UDP only
F.    Each flow monitor supports up to 10 exporters

Answer: DF

QUESTION 738
Which two BGP attributes are optional non-transitive attributes? (Choose two.)

A.    Weight
B.    MED
C.    Local preference
D.    Cluster list
E.    AS path

Answer: BD

QUESTION 739
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?

A.    It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
B.    Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peers on the same interface.
C.    Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
D.    Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network

Answer: C

QUESTION 740
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the OTV component on the left to the function it performs on the right.

 

Answer:

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